Question: Is Qur'an 4 all of humanity ? .
Assalamu Alykum
Verse: And We did not send any messenger except [speaking] in the language of his people to state clearly for them, and Allah sends astray whom He wills and guides whom He wills. And He is the Exalted in Might, the Wise." (14:4)
Here I'm finding the source of confusion:
Here by "His (pbuh) people" Allah clearly mean "Arabs". But if we see according to Islam only Arabs were/are not the people of Prophet Muhammad . We the non-Arabs are also his people.
Furthermore, As we know Prophet Muhammad peace b upon him was sent in Arabic language, in the language of Arabs. If we are also his people, then it means he was not sent in our (non-Arab) language. But the verse states "Allah didn't send any messenger except in the language of his people".
And I know he couldn't be sent in all languages but I'm asking this question just because of the verse which states he was sent in the language of his people.
Now it should be clear by his (PBUH) people what Allah really mean.
(14:4) وَمَا أَرْسَلْنَا مِن رَّسُولٍ إِلَّا بِلِسَانِ قَوْمِهِ لِيُبَيِّنَ لَهُمْ فَيُضِلُّ اللَّهُ مَن يَشَاءُ وَيَهْدِي مَن يَشَاءُ وَهُوَ الْعَزِيزُ الْحَكِيمُ
Could anybody answer please? Please answer in English I doubt the Google translation is not perfect. Thanks.